Are you preparing for the KEA Nursing Officer Recruitment Exam, Staff Nurse Recruitment Exam, AIIMS NORCET, ESIC Staff Nurse, RRB Nursing Superintendent, or other government nursing examinations? Practising multiple-choice questions (MCQs) with answers is an effective way to revise important nursing concepts and improve exam readiness.

On this page, you can practise 100 Nursing Officer and Staff Nurse exam-oriented questions with answers, covering Fundamentals of Nursing, Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Midwifery and Obstetric Nursing, Child Health Nursing, Community Health Nursing, Mental Health Nursing, Microbiology, Anatomy and Physiology, and Nursing Administration.

This question bank is especially useful for candidates preparing for Karnataka Examinations Authority (KEA) Nursing Officer recruitment examinations and other nursing recruitment tests in India.

Use these questions for practice and revision. They are original practice MCQs prepared for examination preparation and should not be treated as verified verbatim questions from an official previous-year question paper.

Nursing Officer Exam Practice – Overview

KEA Nursing Officer Recruitment Exam – Question Papers and Preparation

The Karnataka Examinations Authority (KEA) conducts various recruitment examinations for Karnataka government departments and institutions, according to the relevant recruitment notification. Candidates applying for Nursing Officer or Staff Nurse vacancies should check the applicable official notification for the examination pattern, syllabus, eligibility criteria, selection procedure and availability of previous-year question papers.

KEA Nursing Officer aspirants should concentrate on core nursing subjects, including Fundamentals of Nursing, Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Obstetric and Gynaecological Nursing, Child Health Nursing, Community Health Nursing, Mental Health Nursing and Nursing Administration.

How to prepare for the KEA Nursing Officer exam

1. Read the official KEA recruitment notification and prescribed syllabus.
2. Practise nursing MCQs every day.
3. Revise normal physiological values, emergency procedures and drug calculations.
4. Review important nursing procedures, infection-control practices and patient-safety principles.
5. Practise available previous-year papers and model question papers.
6. Maintain a notebook of incorrect answers and revise it regularly.
7. Check official KEA announcements for examination dates, admit cards, answer keys and results.

Official website: Visit the Karnataka Examinations Authority (KEA) website for recruitment notifications and other official updates.

100 Nursing Officer and Staff Nurse Practice Questions with Answers

Attempt each question before checking the answer. These MCQs cover important nursing topics for KEA Nursing Officer, Staff Nurse and other government nursing recruitment examinations.

Section 1: Fundamentals of Nursing – Questions 1–15

1. What is the normal resting respiratory rate of a healthy adult?

A. 6–10 breaths/minute
B. 12–20 breaths/minute
C. 22–30 breaths/minute
D. 30–40 breaths/minute

Correct Answer: B. 12–20 breaths/minute

2. Which position is commonly used to facilitate breathing in a patient with respiratory distress?

A. Trendelenburg position
B. Prone position
C. High Fowler’s position
D. Lithotomy position

Correct Answer: C. High Fowler’s position

3. Which is the most effective routine measure to prevent the spread of infection in healthcare settings?

A. Wearing a mask at all times
B. Hand hygiene
C. Giving antibiotics to all patients
D. Keeping all windows closed

Correct Answer: B. Hand hygiene

4. What is the normal resting pulse rate of a healthy adult?

A. 30–50 beats/minute
B. 60–100 beats/minute
C. 110–140 beats/minute
D. 140–160 beats/minute

Correct Answer: B. 60–100 beats/minute

5. Which instrument is commonly used to measure blood pressure?

A. Stethoscope alone
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Thermometer
D. Spirometer

Correct Answer: B. Sphygmomanometer

6. Which route generally provides the fastest systemic effect for a medication when administered appropriately?

A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intradermal

Correct Answer: B. Intravenous

7. What is the primary purpose of sterilisation?

A. To remove visible dust only
B. To destroy all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores
C. To reduce unpleasant odours
D. To remove stains from instruments

Correct Answer: B. To destroy all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores

8. Which device is commonly used to measure oxygen saturation?

A. Glucometer
B. Pulse oximeter
C. Nebuliser
D. ECG machine

Correct Answer: B. Pulse oximeter

9. Which of the following is an example of a medical aseptic technique?

A. Maintaining a clean environment and reducing the spread of microorganisms
B. Using an unsterile instrument for surgery
C. Reusing disposable needles
D. Ignoring hand hygiene

Correct Answer: A. Maintaining a clean environment and reducing the spread of microorganisms

10. What is the main purpose of maintaining a patient’s nursing records?

A. To replace communication with the healthcare team
B. To document care, observations and treatment
C. To avoid patient assessment
D. To record only medication costs

Correct Answer: B. To document care, observations and treatment

11. Which action is appropriate before administering medication to a patient?

A. Give the medication without checking the order
B. Verify the patient’s identity and medication order
C. Ask another patient to identify the patient
D. Skip allergy checks

Correct Answer: B. Verify the patient’s identity and medication order

12. Which nutrient is primarily required for tissue growth and repair?

A. Protein
B. Water
C. Sodium
D. Dietary fibre

Correct Answer: A. Protein

13. Which of the following is an example of a pressure injury prevention measure?

A. Keeping the patient in one position throughout the day
B. Assessing the skin and repositioning the patient according to individual needs
C. Massaging reddened bony prominences vigorously
D. Keeping the skin wet at all times

Correct Answer: B. Assessing the skin and repositioning the patient according to individual needs

14. What is the usual purpose of a sterile dressing?

A. To increase contamination
B. To protect a wound and support appropriate wound care
C. To replace all prescribed treatment
D. To prevent the need for wound assessment

Correct Answer: B. To protect a wound and support appropriate wound care

15. Which ethical principle refers to respecting a patient’s right to make informed decisions?

A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Non-maleficence
D. Justice

Correct Answer: A. Autonomy

Section 2: Medical-Surgical Nursing – Questions 16–30

16. Which hormone is primarily responsible for lowering blood glucose levels?

A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. Cortisol
D. Thyroxine

Correct Answer: B. Insulin

17. Which symptom is commonly associated with hypoglycaemia?

A. Sweating and tremors
B. Persistent dry skin only
C. Increased height
D. Slow nail growth

Correct Answer: A. Sweating and tremors

18. Which electrolyte imbalance is particularly associated with cardiac rhythm disturbances?

A. Potassium imbalance
B. Chloride imbalance only
C. Mild phosphate variation only
D. Fluoride deficiency

Correct Answer: A. Potassium imbalance

19. Which organ primarily produces insulin?

A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Spleen
D. Gallbladder

Correct Answer: B. Pancreas

20. Which investigation is commonly used to assess long-term blood glucose control?

A. HbA1c
B. Serum bilirubin
C. Haemoglobin alone
D. Bleeding time

Correct Answer: A. HbA1c

21. Which microorganism causes tuberculosis?

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Salmonella Typhi

Correct Answer: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

22. Which clinical feature is commonly associated with left-sided heart failure?

A. Pulmonary congestion
B. Increased visual acuity
C. Excessive hair growth
D. Enlarged tonsils

Correct Answer: A. Pulmonary congestion

23. Which is a common warning sign of a stroke?

A. Sudden facial drooping or weakness of an arm
B. Gradual nail growth
C. Increased appetite alone
D. Mild itching of the skin alone

Correct Answer: A. Sudden facial drooping or weakness of an arm

24. Which investigation records the electrical activity of the heart?

A. EEG
B. ECG
C. EMG
D. Spirometry

Correct Answer: B. ECG

25. Which organ is primarily responsible for filtering blood and producing urine?

A. Kidney
B. Stomach
C. Pancreas
D. Gallbladder

Correct Answer: A. Kidney

26. Which symptom is commonly associated with appendicitis?

A. Pain that often begins around the umbilicus and later localises to the right lower abdomen
B. Painless hair loss
C. Sudden improvement in hearing
D. Persistent itching of the scalp only

Correct Answer: A. Pain that often begins around the umbilicus and later localises to the right lower abdomen

27. Which of the following is a common symptom of anaemia?

A. Fatigue and pallor
B. Increased visual acuity
C. Excessive bone growth
D. Increased hearing sensitivity

Correct Answer: A. Fatigue and pallor

28. Which condition is characterised by persistent airflow limitation, often associated with smoking?

A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Cataract
D. Otitis externa

Correct Answer: A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

29. What is the primary purpose of dialysis in severe kidney failure?

A. To replace all endocrine functions of the kidney
B. To remove waste products and excess fluid from the blood
C. To produce insulin
D. To increase red blood cell destruction

Correct Answer: B. To remove waste products and excess fluid from the blood

30. Which assessment is especially important when monitoring a patient receiving oxygen therapy?

A. Oxygen saturation and respiratory status
B. Hair colour alone
C. Nail length alone
D. Appetite alone

Correct Answer: A. Oxygen saturation and respiratory status

Section 3: Pharmacology – Questions 31–40

31. Which medication is commonly used as an antipyretic?

A. Paracetamol
B. Heparin
C. Furosemide
D. Metformin

Correct Answer: A. Paracetamol

32. Which medication is an anticoagulant?

A. Heparin
B. Paracetamol
C. Amoxicillin
D. Salbutamol

Correct Answer: A. Heparin

33. Which medication is commonly used for rapid relief of acute bronchospasm?

A. Salbutamol
B. Omeprazole
C. Metformin
D. Ferrous sulfate

Correct Answer: A. Salbutamol

34. Which route of administration delivers medication directly into a vein?

A. Intradermal
B. Intravenous
C. Oral
D. Topical

Correct Answer: B. Intravenous

35. Which medication is commonly used to treat iron-deficiency anaemia?

A. Ferrous sulfate
B. Atropine
C. Furosemide
D. Diazepam

Correct Answer: A. Ferrous sulfate

36. Which medication is a loop diuretic?

A. Furosemide
B. Metformin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Cetirizine

Correct Answer: A. Furosemide

37. Which medication is commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A. Metformin
B. Heparin
C. Salbutamol
D. Loratadine

Correct Answer: A. Metformin

38. Which medication is an antibiotic?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Paracetamol
C. Insulin
D. Salbutamol

Correct Answer: A. Amoxicillin

39. Which medication is commonly used to reverse the anticoagulant effect of heparin?

A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin C
C. Naloxone
D. Atropine

Correct Answer: A. Protamine sulfate

40. Which principle is essential when calculating a medication dose?

A. Estimate the dose without checking
B. Verify the prescribed dose, available strength and calculation
C. Use the previous patient’s dose
D. Ignore the route of administration

Correct Answer: B. Verify the prescribed dose, available strength and calculation

Section 4: Obstetric and Midwifery Nursing – Questions 41–50

41. What is the average duration of a normal human pregnancy, calculated from the first day of the last menstrual period?

A. 28 weeks
B. 32 weeks
C. 40 weeks
D. 44 weeks

Correct Answer: C. 40 weeks

42. Which hormone is detected by most pregnancy tests?

A. Insulin
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
C. Thyroxine
D. Adrenaline

Correct Answer: B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

43. What is the first stage of labour?

A. From the onset of true labour until full cervical dilatation
B. From full dilatation until birth of the baby
C. From birth of the baby until delivery of the placenta
D. The first week after delivery

Correct Answer: A. From the onset of true labour until full cervical dilatation

44. Which vitamin is routinely recommended during pregnancy according to antenatal care guidelines to reduce the risk of neural tube defects?

A. Vitamin K
B. Folic acid
C. Vitamin D only
D. Vitamin B12 only

Correct Answer: B. Folic acid

45. Which of the following is a danger sign during pregnancy requiring prompt medical assessment?

A. Severe headache with visual disturbances
B. Mild hunger before a meal
C. Occasional fetal movement
D. Normal breast enlargement

Correct Answer: A. Severe headache with visual disturbances

46. Which condition is characterised by hypertension developing during pregnancy, often with proteinuria or other organ dysfunction?

A. Preeclampsia
B. Placenta previa
C. Hyperemesis alone
D. Ectopic pregnancy

Correct Answer: A. Preeclampsia

47. What is the primary purpose of antenatal care?

A. To monitor maternal and fetal health and identify pregnancy-related risks
B. To avoid all laboratory investigations
C. To guarantee that labour will begin on a specific date
D. To eliminate the need for skilled birth attendance

Correct Answer: A. To monitor maternal and fetal health and identify pregnancy-related risks

48. Which hormone is primarily responsible for stimulating uterine contractions during labour?

A. Oxytocin
B. Insulin
C. Thyroxine
D. Melatonin

Correct Answer: A. Oxytocin

49. Which of the following is a major risk factor for postpartum haemorrhage?

A. Uterine atony
B. Normal uterine contraction
C. Adequate uterine tone
D. Normal placental separation without bleeding complications

Correct Answer: A. Uterine atony

50. Which practice helps prevent infection in a newborn immediately after birth?

A. Appropriate hand hygiene and clean or sterile practices as indicated
B. Applying unprescribed substances to the umbilical stump
C. Reusing unsterilised equipment
D. Delaying all newborn assessments

Correct Answer: A. Appropriate hand hygiene and clean or sterile practices as indicated

Section 5: Child Health Nursing – Questions 51–60

51. What is the first milk produced by the mother after childbirth called?

A. Colostrum
B. Mature milk
C. Formula milk
D. Foremilk substitute

Correct Answer: A. Colostrum

52. Exclusive breastfeeding is generally recommended for the first:

A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months without complementary feeding

Correct Answer: C. 6 months

53. Which vitamin deficiency causes rickets in children?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K

Correct Answer: C. Vitamin D

54. Which clinical sign is commonly associated with dehydration in children?

A. Reduced urine output
B. Increased urine output in every case
C. Increased tear production in every case
D. Rapid weight gain

Correct Answer: A. Reduced urine output

55. Which vaccine is commonly administered at birth under India’s national immunisation schedule, subject to current programme guidance and individual eligibility?

A. BCG
B. DPT booster
C. HPV vaccine
D. Typhoid conjugate vaccine

Correct Answer: A. BCG

56. Which disease is prevented by the measles-containing vaccine?

A. Measles
B. Tuberculosis
C. Tetanus only
D. Hepatitis C

Correct Answer: A. Measles

57. Which is a common danger sign in a young infant?

A. Inability to feed
B. Normal sleep after feeding
C. Normal urination
D. Normal crying before feeding

Correct Answer: A. Inability to feed

58. What is the primary purpose of oral rehydration solution (ORS)?

A. To replace water and electrolytes lost through diarrhoea and other fluid losses
B. To act as an antibiotic
C. To stop all bowel movements immediately
D. To replace all nutritional needs permanently

Correct Answer: A. To replace water and electrolytes lost through diarrhoea and other fluid losses

59. Which developmental milestone is commonly expected around 6 months of age in many infants?

A. Sitting with support
B. Walking independently in all infants
C. Speaking in complete sentences
D. Writing their name

Correct Answer: A. Sitting with support

60. Which measurement is commonly used to monitor growth in children?

A. Weight
B. Hair length
C. Shoe size alone
D. Tooth colour alone

Correct Answer: A. Weight

Section 6: Community Health Nursing – Questions 61–70

61. Which level of prevention aims to detect a disease early and provide prompt treatment?

A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention

Correct Answer: C. Secondary prevention

62. Which mosquito commonly transmits dengue?

A. Female Aedes mosquito
B. Male Anopheles mosquito
C. Housefly
D. Sandfly

Correct Answer: A. Female Aedes mosquito

63. Which organism causes malaria?

A. Plasmodium species
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Correct Answer: A. Plasmodium species

64. Which method is most effective for reducing the risk of many waterborne infections?

A. Drinking appropriately treated and safe water
B. Leaving drinking water uncovered
C. Using visibly contaminated water
D. Storing water in dirty containers

Correct Answer: A. Drinking appropriately treated and safe water

65. Which organisation is the specialised United Nations agency for international public health?

A. WHO
B. WTO
C. IMF
D. UNESCO

Correct Answer: A. WHO

66. What is the main purpose of epidemiology?

A. To study the distribution and determinants of health-related events in populations
B. To prescribe medication to every person
C. To perform surgery on all patients
D. To manufacture medical equipment

Correct Answer: A. To study the distribution and determinants of health-related events in populations

67. Which is an example of primary prevention?

A. Immunisation before a person develops the targeted infection
B. Rehabilitation after a stroke
C. Treatment of an established fracture
D. Physiotherapy after joint replacement

Correct Answer: A. Immunisation before a person develops the targeted infection

68. Which vitamin deficiency is associated with scurvy?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

Correct Answer: C. Vitamin C

69. Which of the following is a key component of family planning services?

A. Providing accurate information and supporting informed contraceptive choices
B. Forcing every couple to use the same method
C. Withholding information about contraception
D. Preventing access to counselling

Correct Answer: A. Providing accurate information and supporting informed contraceptive choices

70. What is the main purpose of health education?

A. To help people gain knowledge and develop skills that support healthier decisions
B. To replace all healthcare services
C. To discourage preventive healthcare
D. To provide information only to hospital staff

Correct Answer: A. To help people gain knowledge and develop skills that support healthier decisions

Section 7: Mental Health Nursing – Questions 71–78

71. Which symptom is commonly associated with depression?

A. Persistent low mood and loss of interest
B. Increased height
C. Improved night vision
D. Increased nail growth

Correct Answer: A. Persistent low mood and loss of interest

72. Which of the following is a hallucination?

A. Perceiving a voice when no external speaker is present
B. Remembering a real conversation
C. Reading a printed sentence
D. Recognising a familiar person

Correct Answer: A. Perceiving a voice when no external speaker is present

73. What is therapeutic communication?

A. Communication that supports the patient’s needs and wellbeing
B. Giving orders without listening
C. Ignoring the patient’s concerns
D. Sharing confidential information unnecessarily

Correct Answer: A. Communication that supports the patient’s needs and wellbeing

74. Which condition may involve recurrent intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviours performed to reduce distress?

A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. Cataract
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Appendicitis

Correct Answer: A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

75. What is an important nursing priority when a patient expresses an immediate intention to self-harm?

A. Assess immediate risk and initiate appropriate safety measures and urgent support
B. Leave the patient alone without assessment
C. Dismiss the statement as attention-seeking
D. Promise absolute secrecy regardless of risk

Correct Answer: A. Assess immediate risk and initiate appropriate safety measures and urgent support

76. Which approach is appropriate when communicating with a highly anxious patient?

A. Use a calm manner, clear language and active listening
B. Speak rapidly and give many instructions at once
C. Argue aggressively with the patient
D. Ignore the patient’s feelings

Correct Answer: A. Use a calm manner, clear language and active listening

77. Which neurotransmitter is strongly associated with the pathophysiology of Parkinson’s disease?

A. Dopamine
B. Insulin
C. Haemoglobin
D. Bile salts

Correct Answer: A. Dopamine

78. Which of the following is an important component of mental health nursing?

A. Respecting dignity, privacy and patient rights
B. Using punishment as routine treatment
C. Disregarding informed consent
D. Sharing patient information publicly

Correct Answer: A. Respecting dignity, privacy and patient rights

Section 8: Anatomy, Physiology and Microbiology – Questions 79–88

79. What is the functional unit of the kidney?

A. Neuron
B. Nephron
C. Alveolus
D. Osteon

Correct Answer: B. Nephron

80. Which part of the brain plays a major role in balance and coordination?

A. Cerebellum
B. Hypothalamus
C. Medulla alone
D. Pituitary gland

Correct Answer: A. Cerebellum

81. Which blood cells primarily transport oxygen?

A. Red blood cells
B. Platelets
C. Lymphocytes only
D. Plasma cells

Correct Answer: A. Red blood cells

82. Which blood component plays a major role in clot formation?

A. Platelets
B. Red blood cells
C. Albumin alone
D. Bile pigments

Correct Answer: A. Platelets

83. Which organ produces bile?

A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Spleen
D. Urinary bladder

Correct Answer: A. Liver

84. Which part of the respiratory system is the main site of gas exchange?

A. Alveoli
B. Trachea
C. Larynx
D. Nasal cavity

Correct Answer: A. Alveoli

85. Which microorganism is responsible for cholera?

A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Clostridium tetani

Correct Answer: A. Vibrio cholerae

86. Which type of immunity is provided by antibodies transferred from mother to baby through the placenta?

A. Natural passive immunity
B. Artificial active immunity
C. Natural active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity through injection

Correct Answer: A. Natural passive immunity

87. Which blood group is commonly called the universal red blood cell donor type for emergency transfusion when compatibility requirements are considered?

A. AB positive
B. O negative
C. A positive
D. B positive

Correct Answer: B. O negative

88. Which structure connects muscles to bones?

A. Tendon
B. Ligament
C. Cartilage
D. Synovial membrane

Correct Answer: A. Tendon

Section 9: Nursing Administration and Patient Safety – Questions 89–94

89. Which activity is an example of nursing delegation?

A. Assigning an appropriate task to a competent team member while retaining required accountability
B. Transferring all professional responsibility without supervision
C. Assigning every task without considering competence
D. Delegating tasks prohibited by policy or law

Correct Answer: A. Assigning an appropriate task to a competent team member while retaining required accountability

90. What is the main purpose of an incident report in a healthcare facility?

A. To document an incident according to policy and support safety improvement
B. To replace the patient’s clinical record
C. To guarantee that no investigation occurs
D. To publicly disclose patient information

Correct Answer: A. To document an incident according to policy and support safety improvement

91. What should a nurse do if a medication error is identified?

A. Assess the patient, take appropriate immediate action, notify the responsible clinician and follow reporting policy
B. Hide the error
C. Alter records to conceal the event
D. Wait until the next shift without assessing the patient

Correct Answer: A. Assess the patient, take appropriate immediate action, notify the responsible clinician and follow reporting policy

92. Which of the following is an example of quality improvement in nursing?

A. Reviewing care outcomes and implementing changes to improve patient safety
B. Ignoring patient complaints
C. Avoiding documentation audits
D. Repeating unsafe practices without review

Correct Answer: A. Reviewing care outcomes and implementing changes to improve patient safety

93. Which principle is important when handing over a patient to another healthcare professional?

A. Communicating relevant clinical information clearly and accurately
B. Omitting important changes in the patient’s condition
C. Sharing information with unauthorised people
D. Avoiding documentation of significant events

Correct Answer: A. Communicating relevant clinical information clearly and accurately

94. What is the primary purpose of informed consent?

A. To support a patient’s voluntary decision after receiving relevant information
B. To remove the need to explain a procedure
C. To guarantee a successful treatment outcome
D. To allow procedures without appropriate authorisation

Correct Answer: A. To support a patient’s voluntary decision after receiving relevant information

Section 10: Emergency Nursing and General Nursing Knowledge – Questions 95–100

95. What should a healthcare provider do first when approaching an unresponsive adult in a suspected cardiac arrest?

A. Ensure scene safety and assess responsiveness while activating the emergency response system
B. Give oral fluids
C. Ask the patient to stand
D. Begin feeding the patient

Correct Answer: A. Ensure scene safety and assess responsiveness while activating the emergency response system

96. What is the recommended chest compression rate during adult CPR?

A. 40–60 compressions/minute
B. 60–80 compressions/minute
C. 100–120 compressions/minute
D. 140–160 compressions/minute

Correct Answer: C. 100–120 compressions/minute

97. Which device is used to deliver an electrical shock in certain shockable cardiac arrest rhythms?

A. Automated external defibrillator (AED)
B. Nebuliser
C. Glucometer
D. Sphygmomanometer

Correct Answer: A. Automated external defibrillator (AED)

98. Which is an important immediate priority for a patient with severe external bleeding?

A. Apply firm direct pressure to the bleeding site when appropriate and activate emergency assistance
B. Encourage the patient to walk
C. Delay care until laboratory results are available
D. Give food before assessing the injury

Correct Answer: A. Apply firm direct pressure to the bleeding site when appropriate and activate emergency assistance

99. Which is an important principle when caring for a patient with a suspected spinal injury?

A. Minimise unnecessary movement and maintain appropriate spinal precautions
B. Encourage twisting of the neck
C. Sit the patient up immediately in every case
D. Ignore neurological symptoms

Correct Answer: A. Minimise unnecessary movement and maintain appropriate spinal precautions

100. Which nursing action is appropriate when a patient develops sudden difficulty breathing?

A. Rapidly assess the patient, summon appropriate emergency help and support airway and breathing
B. Leave the patient unattended
C. Give food immediately
D. Delay assessment until routine rounds

Correct Answer: A. Rapidly assess the patient, summon appropriate emergency help and support airway and breathing

Answer Key – 100 Nursing Officer MCQs

Use this answer key to check your performance after attempting all 100 questions.

How to Score Your Practice Test

Use the following suggested self-assessment guide. This is a practice guide, not an official examination grading scale.

Do not rely only on your total score. Review every incorrect answer and revise the related topic.

Important Subjects for KEA Nursing Officer and Staff Nurse Exams

Candidates preparing for KEA Nursing Officer recruitment and other government nursing examinations should organise their revision around the official syllabus for the relevant recruitment.

1. Fundamentals of Nursing

Revise vital signs, nursing procedures, infection prevention, patient positioning, documentation, patient safety and ethical principles.

2. Medical-Surgical Nursing

Focus on cardiovascular diseases, respiratory disorders, diabetes mellitus, renal conditions, neurological emergencies, anaemia, fluid and electrolyte balance, and perioperative nursing.

3. Pharmacology

Study drug classifications, indications, adverse effects, routes of administration, medication safety, dosage calculations and emergency medicines.

4. Obstetric and Gynaecological Nursing

Revise antenatal care, stages of labour, high-risk pregnancy, preeclampsia, postpartum haemorrhage, newborn care and family planning.

5. Child Health Nursing

Focus on growth and development, immunisation, breastfeeding, common childhood illnesses, dehydration, nutrition and paediatric emergencies.

6. Community Health Nursing

Study epidemiology, communicable diseases, immunisation programmes, maternal and child health, national health programmes, sanitation and health education.

7. Mental Health Nursing

Revise common psychiatric disorders, therapeutic communication, psychiatric assessment, patient rights and crisis intervention.

8. Anatomy, Physiology and Microbiology

Concentrate on major organs, body systems, blood components, immunity, microorganisms and infection transmission.

9. Nursing Administration

Study leadership, delegation, nursing records, patient handover, quality improvement, incident reporting and professional accountability.

10. Emergency Nursing

Revise basic life support, CPR, shock, bleeding, respiratory emergencies, trauma assessment and emergency response.

Where to Find Nursing Officer Previous-Year Question Papers

Previous-year papers can help candidates understand question styles and practise time management. When using a paper, verify the examination name, year, recruiting authority and authenticity of the document.

For KEA Nursing Officer recruitment, consult the official KEA website and the relevant recruitment notice to check whether question papers, provisional answer keys or final answer keys have been published.

For other nursing recruitment examinations, candidates can look for official or otherwise verifiable papers associated with:

• KEA Nursing Officer recruitment
• AIIMS NORCET
• ESIC Staff Nurse or Nursing Officer recruitment
• Railway nursing recruitment examinations
• State government Staff Nurse recruitment examinations
• Government medical college nursing recruitment
• Other institutional Nursing Officer examinations

Important: Do not assume that a practice paper is an official previous-year paper unless its source and examination details can be verified. Likewise, examination patterns and syllabuses may differ across recruiting authorities and recruitment years.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. Where can I practise KEA Nursing Officer exam questions with answers?

You can practise the 100 MCQs on this page and use the answer key to review your performance. For the official syllabus and recruitment-specific information, check the relevant KEA notification.

2. Are these actual KEA Nursing Officer previous-year questions?

No. The 100 questions on this page are original practice questions prepared for nursing recruitment exam revision. They are not represented as a verified transcription of an actual KEA question paper.

3. How many questions are included in this Nursing Officer question bank?

This article contains 100 multiple-choice practice questions with four options and the correct answer for each question.

4. Which subjects are covered in these nursing MCQs?

The question bank covers Fundamentals of Nursing, Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Obstetric Nursing, Child Health Nursing, Community Health Nursing, Mental Health Nursing, Anatomy and Physiology, Microbiology, Nursing Administration and Emergency Nursing.

5. Are these questions useful for Staff Nurse examinations?

Yes. These basic-to-intermediate nursing MCQs can support revision for Staff Nurse recruitment and other nursing examinations. However, candidates should also study the syllabus and examination pattern of their specific recruitment.

6. Are these questions sufficient to pass the KEA Nursing Officer exam?

No single question bank can guarantee success. Use these MCQs alongside the official syllabus, nursing textbooks, verified previous-year papers, mock tests and regular revision.

7. How should I prepare for the KEA Nursing Officer examination?

Start by reviewing the official notification and syllabus. Then revise core nursing subjects, practise MCQs daily, review mistakes and attempt timed mock tests. Follow official announcements for any examination-specific changes.

8. Where can I check official KEA recruitment updates?

Visit the Karnataka Examinations Authority official website and look for the applicable recruitment notification and official announcements.

9. Can I use this question bank for AIIMS NORCET and ESIC nursing examinations?

Yes, for general nursing subject revision. However, question distribution, difficulty, examination structure and syllabus coverage may differ. Check the relevant official examination notification before preparing.

10. Will more Nursing Officer practice questions be useful?

Yes. Additional topic-wise question banks, mock tests, verified previous-year papers and detailed answer explanations can help candidates identify weak areas and improve preparation.

Conclusion

Practising MCQs regularly is a useful way to revise nursing concepts and prepare for government nursing recruitment examinations. This 100-question Nursing Officer and Staff Nurse practice set covers important topics from Fundamentals of Nursing, Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Obstetric Nursing, Child Health Nursing, Community Health Nursing, Mental Health Nursing and other nursing subjects.

Candidates preparing for the KEA Nursing Officer recruitment exam should combine these practice questions with the official syllabus, verified previous-year papers, mock tests and regular revision.

Save this page for revision, share it with fellow nursing aspirants and revisit the questions to check your progress.

Disclaimer: This page provides educational practice material. It is not an official KEA, AIIMS, ESIC or other recruitment-authority publication. Recruitment details, examination patterns and syllabuses are subject to the relevant official notifications.

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