50 ECG Technician Exam Questions with Answer
ECG Technician Exam Questions with Answer from Question No 01 to 50 available at https://medical-jobs-india.blogspot.com remaining 50 questions fom sl. no 51- 100 is published here
ECG Technician Exam Questions with Answer 51-60
Question51:-Which among the following is not true regarding PSOY?
A:-These are occipital predominant alpha waves
B:-These are commonly seen in young children
C:-These are occipital predominant delta waves
D:-These are rarely seen before 2 years and after 21 years
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question52:-Comment about the following EEG.
A:-Normal awake EEG
B:-Normal sleep EEG
C:-Abnormal awake EEG
D:-Abnormal sleep EEG
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question53:-Which among the following statement is not true regarding IED
(Interictal Epileptiform discharges)?
A:-Sleep is a natural activator of IEDs
B:-IEDs are maximally activated in Stage 3 and 4 of NREM sleep
C:-IEDs are maximally activated in REM sleep
D:-Sleep activates IEDs in both focal and generalized Epilepsy
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question54:-A 15-year-old girl with normal growth and development was admitted
with the first episode of GTCS. While asking history she had a past history of
myoclonic jerks and falls. The EEG recording is shown below. What will be the
probable diagnosis?
A:-Juvenile absence Epilepsy
B:-Juvenile myoclonic Epilepsy
C:-Temporal lobe Epilepsy
D:-Frontal lobe Epilepsy
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question55:-A 15-year-old girl with normal growth and development was brought to
the Emergency department at around 5 a.m. According to her father, she woke up
from sleep and complained of tummy ache and vomited once following which she
became pale and floppy and lost consciousness. She was evaluated with an EEG
which showed occipital spikes. What will be the probable diagnosis?
A:-Childhood Epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes
B:-Childhood Absence Epilepsy
C:-Panayiotopoulos Syndrome
D:-Idiopathic Occipital Epilepsy of Gestaut
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question56:-Comment on the state of the patient based on the following, EEG?
A:-Awake and active state
B:-Drowsy state
C:-Sleep state
D:-Deep sleep
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question57:-Which among the following is not true regarding SREDA?
A:-Most commonly seen in the elderly
B:-Usually, benign
C:-Always Pathological
D:-Usually seen in the posterior Parieto temporal region
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question58:-A 45-year-old lady presented with new onset seizures and autonomic
dysfunction. Her EEG is shown below. What is your comment about the EEG?
A:-Electrocerebral dysfunction
B:-Sweat artifact
C:-Alpha coma
D:-ORIDA
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question59:-20-year-old girl was admitted for the evaluation of drug refractory
seizures. An EEG was performed and whilegiving photic stimulation the following
response was obtained. Comment on the abnormality.
A:-Photic drive
B:-Photomyogenic response
C:-Photoparoxysmal response
D:-Normal Sleep EEG
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question60:-What is the principle behind electronic averaging?
A:-Low noise to signal ratio
B:-Electrode impedance mismatch in recording and ground electrodes
C:-Differential amplification
D:-Randomness of electrical noise
Correct Answer:- Option-D
ECG Technician Exam Questions with Answer 61-70
Question61:-F wave study from right median nerve in a patient shows a potential
with constant latency and morphology located between the M and the F waves.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding this potential?
A:-The presence of this wave confirms that supramaximal stimulus was used
B:-The wave becomes more prominent with increasing the stimulation current
C:-This waveform points to a proximal (root lesion) than distal lesion in the
nerve
D:-Collateral sprouting during reinnervation is responsible for this waveform
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question62:-Henneman’s size principle refers to which of the following statements?
A:-The orderly recruitment of motor units from the smallest to the larger motor
neurons with increasing force of contraction
B:-The property of depletion of the energy from the smallest storage source to
the largest with increasing duration of activity
C:-Innveration of specific sensory receptors by nerve fibres in relation to the
diameter of the nerve fibre
D:-The activation of neurons of the cerebral cortex in response to a stimulus
follows an orderly fashion
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question63:-Which of the following technical pitfalls may result in a falsely high
decremental response in slow (3 Hz) repetitive nerve stimulation test for
myasthenia gravis?
A:-Low skin temperature
B:-Use of submaximal stimulus
C:-Study of distal rather than proximal nerves
D:-Not withholding choline esterase inhibitors prior to the study
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question64:-Which of the following nerve conduction features in a severely affected
limb favour root avulsion as the etiology of a suspeced traumatic brachial plexus
injury when performed 6 weeks after the injury?
i. Normal motor conduction studies
ii. Normal sensory conduction studies
iii. Fibrillations in the ipsilateral cervical paraspinal muscles
A:-Both (i) and (ii)
B:-Both (ii) and (iii)
C:-Both (i) and (iii)
D:-All of (i), (ii) and (iii)
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question65:-What is the pathophysiological basis for contractures in the glycogen
storage disease, McArdle’s disease?
A:-Excessive inflow of calcium into sarcoplasmic reticulum
B:-Excessive outflow of sodium from myoplasm to the extracellular space
C:-Failure of relaxation due to ATP deficiency
D:-Failure to actin to move to active position
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question66:-What is the EMG finding in a patient who has weakness due to an
upper motor neuron dysfunction?
A:-Reduced activation
B:-Early recruitment
C:-Reduced recruitment
D:-Early activation
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question67:-Which examination table (for patients) is preferable for nerve
conduction studies and why?
A:-A metal table as it acts as an additional ground for the patient
B:-A metal table as it allows the positioning of the cot for patient transfer
C:-A wooden table as it is electrically safe and does not conduct electricity
D:-A wooden table as it acts as a thermal insulator
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question68:-A patient has difficulty in relaxing hand muscles and stiffness of
muscles. He is dignosed to have myotonic dystrophy type 1. What is the origin of
the abnormal EMG insertional/spontaneous activity in this patient?
A:-Depolarization of a single muscle fibre and ephaptic spread to other fibres
B:-Irregular firing of denervated motor axons
C:-Spontaneous discharge of muscle fibres due to membrane hyper-excitability
D:-Spontaneous depolarization in demyelinated nerve segments
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question69:-Which of the following is true regarding blink reflex study?
A:-The affarent is the supratrochlear nerve and efferent is the facial nerve
B:-It is ideal to record in repetitive stimulation mode
C:-A delay of R1, ipsilateral R2 and contralateral R2 indicates an ipsilateral
facial neuropathy
D:-R2 latencies vary in the morphology and latency from stimulus to stimulus
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question70:-Weakness or paralysis of the serratus anterior characteristically
results in “winging” of the scapula. Which nerve paralysis cause this?
A:-Axillary nerve
B:-Suprascapular nerve
C:-Long thoracic nerve
D:-Spina accessory nerve
Correct Answer:- Option-C
ECG Technician Exam Questions with Answer 71-80
Question71:-Motor conduction study of ulnar nerve with forearm extended at elbow
will result in
A:-Falsely high conduction velocity across elbow
B:-Falsely slow conduction velocity across elbow
C:-Partial conduction block across elbow
D:-Temporal dispersion across elbow
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question72:-A markedly higher amplitude of ulnar motor conduction distally (at
wrist) than proximally (below elbow) usually occurs with
A:-Conduction block of ulnar nerve across the below and above elbow sites
B:-Co-stimulation of median nerve at below elbow stimulation site
C:-A Martin-Gruber anastomosis with crossing fibres innervating hypothenar
muslces
D:-Submaximal stimulation at the wrist and below elbow sites
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question73:-Which of the following factors have led to the replacement of single
fibre EMG needle electrodes by concentric needle electrodes in jitter studies?
A:-Smaller surface area of recording of pediatric concentric needle
B:-Concentric needles are disposable
C:-Shorter time for recordings using concentric needles
D:-More reliable values of mean consecutive difference with concentric needle
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question74:-Which component of motor unit potential (MUP) is maximally affected
by the proximity of the muscle fibres of a motor unit to the needle?
A:-Amplitude
B:-Duration
C:-Phases
D:-Stability
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question75:-A diabetic patient needs evaluation for autonomic neuropathy. Which
of the following settings for nerve conduction study is the most appropriate one for
the testing of sympathetic function from his hand?
A:-Time base 5 ms/division, Sensitivity 5 mV/division, Filters 2 Hz – 10 kHz
B:-Time base 1 ms/division, Sensitivity 29 μV/division, Filters 20 Hz – 30 kHz
C:-Time base 1000 ms/division, Sensitivity 500 μV/division, Filters 0.1 Hz – 500
kHz
D:-Time base 10 ms/division, Sensitivity 500 μV/division, Filters 2 Hz – 3 KHz
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question76:-A 50% reduction in sensory nerve amplitudes across two sites of
stimulation is not considered conduction block because
A:-Sensory nerves do not manifest demyelinating pathology
B:-The normal temporal dispersion and phase cancellation in sensory nerves
can produce marked reduction in amplitude
C:-The amplitudes of sensory nerve potentials are inadequate to do multiple
site stimulation
D:-Collision of antidromic and orthodromic stimuli will markedly reduce the
sensory nerve amplitude
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question77:-At what age in children does conduction velocities of limbs reach adult
values?
A:-2-3 years
B:-3-5 years
C:-5-7 years
D:-8-10 years
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question78:-Which of the following recordings should be performed at submaximal
stimulation?
A:-H reflex
B:-F wave study
C:-Collision studies
D:-Mixed nerve conduction study
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question79:-An abnormality due to low temperature is identified with the
combination of
A:-Low amplitude, prolonged peak latency, low conduction velocity
B:-Low amplitude, shortened peak latency, high conduction velocity
C:-High amplitude, prolonged peak latency, low conduction velocity
D:-High amplitude, shortened peak latency, high conduction velocity
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question80:-Which of the following exercise tests simulates fast repetitive nerve
stimulation?
A:-20 minutes exercise test
B:-5 minutes exercise test
C:-1 minute exercise test
D:-10 second exercise test
Correct Answer:- Option-D
ECG Technician Exam Questions with Answer 81-90
Question81:-Identify this wave form
A:-Visual evoked potential
B:-Brainstem Auditory Evoked potentials
C:-Somatosensory Evoked Potentials
D:-Motor Evoked Potentials
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question82:-A 17 year old girl presented with progressive numbness and weakness
of her left hand of 1 year duration. No history of neck pain or bladder involvement.
On examination there was prominent wasting and weakness of the thenar and less
prominently, the hypothenar muscles with weakness of left thumb abduction.
Sensation was impaired over little finger, ring finger, medial forearm and arm.
Nerve conduction study showed low CMAP amplitude in both the median and ulnar
motor nerves, preferentially affecting the median-innervated thenar muscles.
Median and ulnar distal latencies and conduction velocities were slightly slowed.
The sensory nerve conduction studies showed normal median SNAP and the ulnar
SNAP is low in amplitude. What is the diagnosis?
A:-C8-T1 Radiculopathy
B:-Upper trunk plexopathy
C:-Ulnar neuropathy
D:-Neurogenic thoraic outlet syndrome
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question83:-The reasons for a normal SNAP in an area of numbness are all except
that
A:-The lesion is a chronic neuropathy
B:-The lesion is hyperacute (i.e. <6-10 days old for sensory fibres)
C:-The lesion is proximal to the dorsal root ganglion, either at the level of the
nerve roots or more centrally located in the spinal cord or brain
D:-The lesion is one of proximal demyelination, possibly conduction block,
which leaves the axon relatively intact
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question84:-Prolongation of the absolute latency of the EP (N9) waveform in
somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEP) indicates what?
A:-The lesion is in the dorsal column pathway proximal to the brachial plexus
but distal to the cervical spinal cord
B:-Peripheral neuropathy
C:-A lesion between the cervical spinal cord and the contralateral
somatosensory cortex
D:-The lesion is more proximal, between the medulla and somatosensory
cortex likely contra lateral to the side of stimulation
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question85:-The following are features of primary demyelinating polyneuropathy
except
A:-Markedly prolonged distal latencies (> 130% of the upper limit of normal)
B:-Markedly slowed conduction velocities (usually <75% of lower limit of
normal)
C:-Markedly prolonged or absent late responses (>130% of the upper limit of
normal)
D:-Markedly decreased motor and sensory amplitudes
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question86:-Which among the following is used intraoperatively to monitor motor
pathway such as corticospinal tract?
A:-Motor Evoked Potentials (MEP)
B:-Brainstem Auditory Evoked Potentials (BAEP)
C:-Somatosensory Evoked Potentials (SSEP)
D:-Nerve Conduction Studies and Electromyography
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question87:-Single-Fiber Electromyography (SFEMG) is used for evaluation of which
disease?
A:-Myopathy
B:-Neuropathy
C:-Myasthenia gravis
D:-Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question88:-Myopathies with denervating features are all except
A:-Polymyositis
B:-Sarcoid myopathy
C:-Inclusion body myositis
D:-Mytonia congenita
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question89:-Conditions associated with small, short, polyphasic motor unit action
potentials are all except
A:-Myopathy
B:-Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C:-Myasthenia gravis
D:-Early reinnervation after severe denervation
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question90:-A 25 year old lady was admitted in intensive care unit for 2 weeks with
severe pneumonia and sepsis. She required ventilator support for 1 week. She
developed generalized weakness, numbness and wasting. NCS study showed
reduced CMAP and SNAP amplitude with normal latency and conduction velocity.
RNS was normal. The most suitable diagnosis is
A:-Myasthenia gravis
B:-Motor neuron disease
C:-Critical illness neuropathy
D:-Periodic paralysis
Correct Answer:- Option-C
ECG Technician Exam Questions with Answer 91-100
Question91:-Name the test that measure brain function equivalent to EEG in that
the same neuronal sources that generate electrical activity also give rise to
magnetic fields.
A:-Quantitative Electroencephalogram (QEEG)
B:-Amplitude-integrated EEG (aEEG)
C:-Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS)
D:-Magnetoencephalography (MEG)
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question92:-Which type of Visual Evoked Potential (VEP) is used for young children
or other patients who cannot maintain focus on a checkerboard pattern or patients
whose visual acuity is so poor that they cannot differentiate between the dark and
the light squares?
A:-Flash VEP
B:-Pattern-reversal VEP
C:-Full field VEP
D:-Pattern onset VEP
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question93:-What are the EEG criteria to diagnose brain death?
1. The EEG with minimum of eight scalp electrodes and an inter electrode distance
of at least 10 cm.
2. EEG should show electro cerebral silence, which necessitates no electrical
potentials of more than 5 mV.
3. 30-minute recording of EEG is required.
4. EEG should show electro cerebral silence, which necessitates no electrical
potentials of more than 2 mV.
A:-1, 2 and 3
B:-1 and 4
C:-2, 3 and 4
D:-1, 3 and 4
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question94:-What are true about ‘Trace discontinu’ in EEG?
1. An important EEG maturational milestone, as it is the first EEG pattern to
emerge that differentiates wakefulness from sleep in the premature infant.
2. It consists of bursts of high-amplitude (≤200 μV) activity separated by periods
of relative quiescence with amplitudes of less than 25 μV.
3. The bursts are composed of normal theta and delta activity.
4. By 32 to 34 weeks of conceptional age, the trace discontinu pattern is well
developed.
A:-1, 2, 3 and 4
B:-3 and 4
C:-1, 2 and 3
D:-2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question95:-
This is the EEG of a 4 month old child with developmental delay and seizures in the
form of flexor spasm. What is the abnormality shown in EEG?
A:-Generalized spike and wave discharges
B:-Hypsarhythmia
C:-Burst suppression
D:-Slow spikewave activity
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question96:-What are the indications for invasive EEG?
1. To define seizure generator and tailor surgical resection.
2. Mapping of cortical function.
3. Relationship existing between lesion and seizure focus.
4. For prognosis
A:-1, 2 and 3
B:-2, 3 and 4
C:-1, 2 and 4
D:-All
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question97:-All features are true about triphasic waves except
A:-They are typically bifrontally predominant
B:-On a bipolar montage, they appear as complex discharges that include
three phases
C:-They are commonly seen in primary generalized epilepsy
D:-A fronto-occipital delay, or phase lag is often present on longitudinal bipolar
montages
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question98:-What is known as BANCAUD phenomenon?
A:-Focal attenuation of beta activity
B:-Unilateral failure of the alpha rhythm to attenuate with eye opening occurs
with posterior subcortical lesions
C:-Unilateral attenuation or absence of alpha rhythm usually occurs with
lesions of the occipital cortex and anterior ventral thalamus
D:-Skull defects enhance the scalp-recorded voltage of sleep spindles and
vertex waves
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question99:-What is the average size of cortical sources that produce typical scalp
EEG potentials?
A:-
B:-
C:-
D:-
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question100:-The Internal auditory artery is a branch of :
A:-Superior cerebellar artery
B:-Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
C:-Posterior cerebral artery
D:-Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Correct Answer:- Option-B